« The Democrats and women | Main | Peakzilla vs. the Holy Market »

August 26, 2005

Comments

theoria

First, I should disclaim that I don't have the authority (or certification) to call myself a "political philosopher". Political, yes; philosopher, no. As it is practiced in most of the English speaking world, philosophy is pretty much a dead discipline concerned primarily with the meaning of the word "the" and what book from two hundred years ago Danny Dennett can rip off his. (His last, Freedom Evolves, has a strange resemblance to the Phenomology of Spirit -- strange!) As such, I get to call myself a "sociologist" even though the more than vast majority of sociology is a piece of shit. (Empiricist and positivist... sorry: scientific.) More specifically, because I do what is "actually" political philosophy (Anglo-Americans have forgotten what that means), I have to call myself a "social theorist" or "political theorist". The general distinction being between one who has degrees in sociology or political science. The latter being a generally more conservative discipline that the latter (as undisciplined as either are), "social theorist" it is.

Second, I hope I make sense!

Third, not being "American", it is impossible for me to be "anti-American" under the classic definition of the term (i.e., McCarthy's). The term is rather disturbing in the same way that Chavez is called "anti-American" (to use a recent example) because his policies are generally pro-nationalist and quasi-populist. It appears that the Monroe Doctrine has been extended over the entirety of the globe! (I have been called, oddly enough, a "hypernationalist". Not sure what that means; I have no particular love or affinity for Canada beyond the fact that, ultimately, the Minister of Finance pays my salary! Doing everything I can, of course, to stop that brain drain. Speaking of which, traitor!)

Mandos

Go tell that to the University of Toronto. Bleah.

And hey, don't knock "the". The meaning of the word "the" is a pretty complicated issue!

IIRC didn't the Monroe Doctrine always apply to Venezuela?

theoria

The Monroe Doctrine determined "the Americas" to be the imperial domain of the United States vis a vis the European powers. First, this is just crazy -- but quite important nonetheless. On the imperial ambitious of the American "founding fathers" and their Constitution, Hardt and Negri (in Empire) are quite right. But, in a sense, they say nothing more than what Tocqueville said in that Bible of all things American, Democracy in America. (Especially the chapters on (1) conquest of the West and (2) American democracy produces private citizens.) But what I meant (and wasn't too clear about) is that the Monroe Doctrine has been globalized: even the French when pursuing what they see as their own national interest (i.e., non-participation in the invasion of Iraq), they are deemed to be "Anti-American". (Note: I'm not defending nation-states as a desirable form of political organization; they clearly aren't.) Regardless of who you are and where you are, the global interest is the American interest. There is no distinction. The distinction only holds in non- or quasi-globalized places, like China.

Afterall, France is the world's largest exporter of "Anti-Americanism"; if you believe the Washington Post.

The University of Toronto was doing fine until they lost Ian Hacking to le College de France. (First foreigner to be appointed; to Bourdieu's former chair, IIRC.) Well, I'll change what I have said: Toronto could be tolerated if you were working with Hacking. Now you can't.

Heronimus Tosticles

It is easy to undervalue a subject that you don't understand - and I'm afraid this seems to be the case here.

The comments to this entry are closed.